On Tue, 19 Oct 2010, Martin Schied wrote:
using the first deviation as modulation should be more physically correct but sounded very tinny and thin.
how do you compute that ?... how is the pressure wave supposed to relate to the digital wave ? I don't expect it to be a 1:1 mapping... my mechanics is a bit rusty. If [osc~ 1000] direct to [dac~] comes out as a ±1V peak potential, then what is [osc~ 2000] coming out as, and then how do you convert that to intensity (ampère) and power (watt), and then the kinetic energy it produces corresponds to which speed and ± peak distance ? (i remember that there's ½mv² somewhere in there... and there's réactance and impédance...)
Using direct signal for modulation like Mathieu used works very well and sounds more pleasant...
because I can't pretend to remember my grade 12 mechanics and grade 13 electricity so well, I concentrated on the æsthetics of it, but I'd be very curious about the physics of it. So, if you (or Martin Peach or other) can teach me a paragraph or two about this, I would be grateful.
Interesting. I didn't expect it that way :)
me neither, really. ;)
| Mathieu Bouchard ------------------------------ Villeray, Montréal, QC