Chuckk Hubbard wrote:
Not that I don't appreciate the snide commentary, but this is why I'm asking.
If I offended you, please forgive me. You asked a simple question and I tried to answer, as simple as possible (I don't know your level of education).
Back to your question, you asked:
So why, when you multiply Z1 and Z2, do i*sin(a) and i*sin(b)
multiply to -sin(a)sin(b)?
You see, you wrote an "i" there. If you define "i" by "sqrt(-1)" (I admit I was implying that), then my answer:
i*sin(a) * i*sin(b) = -1 * sin(a)*sin(b)
is correct. And, as you see, "i" is there :-)
But, if you wanted to discuss the fact, that "i" has no physical meaning
issue, much more philosophical than mathematical and thus outside my education focus.
br, Piotr