7 Oct
2008
7 Oct
'08
3:29 p.m.
Yep, they both converge on tanh afaics. Your one is more efficient though, I'll use that. (attached)
But what I don't understand is why it needs scaling and doesn't naturally work over -1 to +1
cheers,
Andy
On Tue, 7 Oct 2008 14:46:56 +0200 Thomas Grill gr@grrrr.org wrote:
Hi,
An approximation to tanh(x) is a continued fraction x/1+ (x^2)/3+ (4x^2)/5+ (16x^2)/9+ ...
are you sure this is correct? Another well-known formulation is x/(1+x^2/(3+x^2/(5+x^2/(7+..... which works for me and converges quickly. see http://nrich.maths.org/public/viewer.php?obj_id=1451
gr~~~
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